This will be my last catching-up-post, I think after this one, I'm all caught up with the material in class. I apologize for my blogs being a bit out of order because I've been a bit behind schedule, but I can assure you that after this blog, my posts will be chronologically sufficient.
David Hume presents the idea that instead of questioning what creates art a piece of art, as a society, we should explore whether there are objective standards for assessing art and whether something is considered "good art" or "bad art." He does not solve the antinomy that Wartenberg describes in the introduction to his essay because people will always have their subjective views on art, and it is only a matter of taste that affects the "sentiments." On page 42 of the textbook, Hume writes, "Beauty is no quality in things themselves: It exists merely in the mind which contemplates them; and each mind perceives a different beauty." In other words, people will always have their specific idea of beauty because it exists primarily inside of their own mind, and their vision of beauty is not like anyone else’s. Therefore, a person’s idea of a great piece of artwork may differ severely to another person’s idea of a great piece of artwork. Although Hume claims that there is a universal susceptibility to qualities of artwork that ensures that there will be universal agreement that some pieces of artwork have more beauty within them than others, he also acknowledges that there will always be aesthetic disagreement among art.
My question is, "Everybody comes from a different background, a different life; therefore, their subjective views and taste of art will always be different and unique. How can there be a universal agreement on the goodness of art when we all come from a different background of what is considered 'good' or not?"
Saturday, April 17, 2010
Friday, April 16, 2010
Dewey and Nature.
Looking back on my previous posts, I realized that I didn't respond to anything about Dewey's text in the textbook. I know this is a bit late, but I'm just trying to catch up on the blog posts that I missed.
Dewey’s view of the relations between art and nature is that art imitates nature and is “"prefigured in the very processes of living," according to the text. However, we are not conscious of this relationship between art and nature because of how natural it is to us. The raw art of the natural world could almost be considered an outline, according to Dewey, and a model for the artistic intentions of mankind; because it is ingrained in our being, this natural inclination for art, we are not fully conscious of it and, instead, attach a conscious intent to creating art to substitute for that which is not. As Dewey writes in the text, "Art is the living and concrete proof that man is capable of restoring consciously, and thus on the plane of meaning, the union of sense, need, impulse and action characteristic of the live creature." In other words, this means that art itself is the evidence that mankind naturally imitates the world of animal life because of our innate connection to the natural world. Furthermore, our cognitive intervention of consciousness regulates our artistic inclinations and varies the art we create in an infinite number of ways. If it wasn’t for this intervention, however, the idea of art would cease to exist, and the intellectual movement that is known as art would not have been achieved in the history of humanity.
My question is, "If our inclination for artistic endeavors can be traced back to animal life, then how did we evolve as a society artistically? Was it our interpretation of art that made it so modern?"
Dewey’s view of the relations between art and nature is that art imitates nature and is “"prefigured in the very processes of living," according to the text. However, we are not conscious of this relationship between art and nature because of how natural it is to us. The raw art of the natural world could almost be considered an outline, according to Dewey, and a model for the artistic intentions of mankind; because it is ingrained in our being, this natural inclination for art, we are not fully conscious of it and, instead, attach a conscious intent to creating art to substitute for that which is not. As Dewey writes in the text, "Art is the living and concrete proof that man is capable of restoring consciously, and thus on the plane of meaning, the union of sense, need, impulse and action characteristic of the live creature." In other words, this means that art itself is the evidence that mankind naturally imitates the world of animal life because of our innate connection to the natural world. Furthermore, our cognitive intervention of consciousness regulates our artistic inclinations and varies the art we create in an infinite number of ways. If it wasn’t for this intervention, however, the idea of art would cease to exist, and the intellectual movement that is known as art would not have been achieved in the history of humanity.
My question is, "If our inclination for artistic endeavors can be traced back to animal life, then how did we evolve as a society artistically? Was it our interpretation of art that made it so modern?"
Monday, April 12, 2010
Response #11.
In Skyla's blog, she questions, "Are there works of art that you see as breathtaking and does the beauty of the piece take away from the message/meaning in it? Basically, can beauty be too distracting?"
There have been no pieces of artwork - from my experience - whose message was taken away some by it's beauty. For me, the opposite usually happens - usually when I see a piece of artwork that is breathtakingly beautiful, it adds to the meaning of the piece and I grow to appreciate it substantially more than when a piece is merely average, in my opinion. For instance, music is beautiful to me, some pieces moreso than others. One of the most beautiful acoustic guitar instrumentals is a song called "Ocean" by the John Butler Trio, and the first time I heard it, I was moved to tears by how beautiful the piece sounded to me. I love acoustic guitar, I play the acoustic guitar, but the song made me appreciate the sound of the guitar a whole lot more because of how beautiful and moving the song was. There are no lyrics to the song, but the message of passion and sorrow and beauty still shined through because the musician was able to totally commit his body and soul to his instrument in such a way that the music was spellbinding. It certainly did not distract me from the song at all, because it made the song was it was.
My question is, "Do you believe that contemporary mainstream music overlooks the spiritual function that music was originally intended to portray?"
There have been no pieces of artwork - from my experience - whose message was taken away some by it's beauty. For me, the opposite usually happens - usually when I see a piece of artwork that is breathtakingly beautiful, it adds to the meaning of the piece and I grow to appreciate it substantially more than when a piece is merely average, in my opinion. For instance, music is beautiful to me, some pieces moreso than others. One of the most beautiful acoustic guitar instrumentals is a song called "Ocean" by the John Butler Trio, and the first time I heard it, I was moved to tears by how beautiful the piece sounded to me. I love acoustic guitar, I play the acoustic guitar, but the song made me appreciate the sound of the guitar a whole lot more because of how beautiful and moving the song was. There are no lyrics to the song, but the message of passion and sorrow and beauty still shined through because the musician was able to totally commit his body and soul to his instrument in such a way that the music was spellbinding. It certainly did not distract me from the song at all, because it made the song was it was.
My question is, "Do you believe that contemporary mainstream music overlooks the spiritual function that music was originally intended to portray?"
When is Art?
In this week's topic of discussion, Goodman is brought into question in his proposition that we should question not what art is, but when art is. If there is so much controversy over what makes a piece of work art, then why should we bother trying to define it as art or not? Wouldn't it be easier not to try to define what art is, but rather distinguish when a piece of artwork and when it is not?
In the text, Goodman argues the symbolic properties of a rock and when it is art. When a rock is lying on a driveway, one can safely assume that it is not functioning as a piece of art, because there is no symbolic duty that the rock must fulfill. It must simply lay there and perform it's rock-like function. However, if that rock was brought into a museum and showcased as a piece of artwork, then it must have symbolic functioning it must fulfill. The viewer, then, must look upon that rock with artistic intent: What is it's texture? What shape does it take form? What color is the rock? How is the rock relating to the other objects in the room? The rock may not necessarily be art in the driveway, but in the museum, it performs the function of artwork because there exists symbolic function.
My question is, "Goodman brings up the proposition that when a Rembrandt work is hung in replacement for a window, it is not considered art. However, can’t it perform both duties of being a window and also a work of art simultaneously because the viewer can still look upon it as a piece of art in their own home?"
In the text, Goodman argues the symbolic properties of a rock and when it is art. When a rock is lying on a driveway, one can safely assume that it is not functioning as a piece of art, because there is no symbolic duty that the rock must fulfill. It must simply lay there and perform it's rock-like function. However, if that rock was brought into a museum and showcased as a piece of artwork, then it must have symbolic functioning it must fulfill. The viewer, then, must look upon that rock with artistic intent: What is it's texture? What shape does it take form? What color is the rock? How is the rock relating to the other objects in the room? The rock may not necessarily be art in the driveway, but in the museum, it performs the function of artwork because there exists symbolic function.
My question is, "Goodman brings up the proposition that when a Rembrandt work is hung in replacement for a window, it is not considered art. However, can’t it perform both duties of being a window and also a work of art simultaneously because the viewer can still look upon it as a piece of art in their own home?"
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